Sexual reproduction flowering plants

1. Select the odd one:- (a) Pollen grain (b) Antipodal cells (c) Synergids (d) Egg cell 2. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of (a) pea (b) maize (c) coconut (d) castor 3. Which of the following is monoecious: (a) Papaya (b) Date palm (c) Vallisneria (d) Cucurbita 4..Example of polyploid tissue present in an angiosperm plant is (a) Perisperm (b) Embryo (c) Tapetum (d) Placenta 5. Pollen grain represents (a) Female gametophyte (b) Male gametophyte (c) Sporophyte (d) Anther 6.The innermost layer of microsporangium is (a) tapetum (b) endothecium (c) middle layer (d) epidermis 7.Centre of each microsporangium is occupied by (a) sporogenous tissue (b) Tapetum (c) central tissue (d) microspore mother cell 8. What would be the ploidy of the cells of tetrad? (a) Haploid (b) Diploid (c) Polyploid (d) Triploid 9.Choose the number of diploid structures in the list given below: - Pollen grains, nucellus, Perisperm, endosperm, embryo sac, megaspore (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) One 10. A multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium is found in :- (a) Hibiscus (b) Michelia (c) Papaver (d) All NEET PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS 1. Attractants and rewards are required for: [2017] (a) Entomophily (b) Hydrophily (c) Cleistogamy (d) Anemophily 2. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by: [2017] (a) Bee (b) Wind (c) Bat (d) Water 3. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both: [2017] (a) Autogamy and geitonogamy (b) Geitonogamy and xenogamy (c) Cleistogamy and xenogamy (d) Autogamy and xenogamy 5. Which of the following statements is not correct? [2016] (a) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style. (b) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers. (c) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil. (d) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species. 6. Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy? [2015 RS] (a) Xenogamy (b) Apogamy (c) Cleistogamy (d) Geitonogamy 7. Which one of the following statements is not true? [2015 RS] (a) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people (b) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odour to attract them (c) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers (d) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they are used in the form of tablets and syrups 8. The hilum is a scar on the : [2015 RS] (a) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel (b) Fruit, where style was present (c) Seed, where micropyle was present (d) Seed, where funicle was attached 9. Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators? [2015 RS] (a) Nectar and pollen grains (b) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals (c) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates (d) Colour and large size flower 10. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of:[2015 RS] (a) Nucellar embryo(b) Aleurone cell (c) Synergids(d) Generative cell 11. Geitonogamy involves: [2014] (a) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant. (b) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower. (c) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population. (d) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population. 12. Male gametopyte with least number of cell is present in: [2014] (a) Pteris (b) Funaria (c) Lilium (d) Pinus 13. Function of filiform apparatus is to: [2014] (a) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma (b) Stimulate division of generative cell (c) Produce nectar (d) Guide the entry of pollen tube 14. Megasporangium is equivalent to :[NEET 2013] (a) Fruit (b) Nucellus (c) Ovule (d) Embryo sac 15. Advantage of cleistogamy is : [NEET 2013] (a) More vigorous offspring (b) No dependence of pollinators (c) Vivipary (d) Higher genetic variability 16. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates: [NEET 2013] (a) Prolonged dormancy (b) New genetic combination leading to variation (c) Large biomass (d) Longer viability of seeds 17. Which one of the following statements is correct? [NEET 2013] (a) Sporogenous tissue is haploid (b) Endothecium produces the microspores (c) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen (d) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine 18. Which one of the following statements is correct? [NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of flowers of different plants (b) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous (c) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination (d) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all 19. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells after [NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Meiotic division (b) Mitotic division (c) Formation of a thick wall(d) Differentiation 20. Animal vectors are required for pollination in[NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Maize (b) Vallisneria (c) Mulberry (d) Cucumber 21. Which of the following statements is correct? [NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures but not strong acids (b) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes (c) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials (d) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures as well as strong acids and alkalis 22. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy areprevented in - [2012] (a) Papaya (b) Cucumber (c) Castor (d) Maize 23. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is : [2012] (a) Cuticle (b) Sporopollenin (c) Lignin (d) Cellulose 24. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed setting is assured in [2012] (a) Commelina (b) Zostera (c) Salvia (d) Fig 25. What is the function of germ pore? [2012M] (a) Emergence of radicle (b) Absorption of water for seed germination (c) Initiation of pollen tube (d) Release of male gametes 26. Which one of the following statements is wrong? [2012M] (a) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place. (b) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell. (c) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months. (d) Intine is made up of cellulose and -pectin. 27. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by [2012M] (a) bees (b) butterflies (c) birds (d) wind 28. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of [2011] (a) suspensor (b) egg (c) synergid (d) zygote 29. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous? [2011] (a) Geitonogamy (b) Xenogamy (c) Chasmogamy (d) Cleistogamy 30. Wind pollination is common in [2011] (a) legumes (b) lilies (c) grasses (d) orchids 31. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called [2010] (a) Xenogamy (b) Geitonogamy (c) Karyogamy (d) Autogamy 32. Wind pollinated flowers are [2010] (a) small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains (b) small, producing large number of dry pollen grains (c) large producing abundant nectar and pollen (d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen 33. Unisexuality of flowers prevents [2008] (a) autogamy, but not geitonogamy (b) both geitonogamy and xenogamy (c) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy (d) autogamy and geitonogamy 34. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule? [2008] (a) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid (b) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac (c) It brings about opening of the pollen tube (d) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg 35. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall? [2007] (a) male gamete (b) egg (c) pollen grain (d) microspore mother cell 36. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of [2007] (a) generative cell (b) vegetative cell (c) microspore mother cell (d) microspore. 37. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes? [2007] (a) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells (b) Egg cell and antipodal cells (c) Nucelus and antipodal cells (d) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus 38. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is [2006] (a) 3 + 2 + 3 (b) 2 + 3 + 3 (c) 3 + 3 + 2 (d) 2 + 4 + 2 39. What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleuron layer in a plant species with 8 chromosomes in its synergids?[2006] (a) 24 (b) 32 (c) 8 (d) 1 40.Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo sac? [2005] (a) Egg cell (b) Persistent synergid (c) Degenerated synergid (d) Central cell 41. Which one of the following represents an ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horseshoe shaped and the funiculus and micropyle are close to each other? [2005] (a) Amphitropous (b) Circinotropous (c) Atropous (d) Antropous 42. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is [2004] (a) Hemitropous (b) Campylotropous (c) Anatropous (d) Orthotropous 43. In oogamy, fertilization involves [2004] (a) a small non-motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete (b) a large non-motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete (c) a large non-motile female gamete and a small non motile male gamete (d) a large motile female gamete and a small nonmotile male gamete 44. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is [2004] (a) Hemitropous (b) Campylotropous (c) Anatropous (d) Orthotropous 45. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to [2003] (a) only tapetum and sporogenous cells (b) only the wall of the sporangium (c) both wall and the sporogenous cells (d) wall and the tapetum 46. In angiosperms pollen tubes liberate their male gametes into the [2002] (a) central cell (b) antipodal cell (c) egg cell (d) synergids 47. What is the direction of micropyle in anatropous ovule ? [2002] (a) upward (b) downward (c) right (d) left 48. In angiosperms all the four microspores of tetrad are covered by a layer which is formed by [2002] (a) pectocellulose (b) callose (c) cellulose (d) sporopollenin 49. Anemophily type of pollination is found in [2001] (a) Salvia (b) Bottle brush (c) Vallisneria (d) Coconut 50. Eight nucleate embryo sacs are [2000] (a) always tetrasporic (b) always monosporic (c) always bisporic (d) sometime monosporic, sometimes bisporic and sometimes tetrasporic 51. The endosperm of gymnosperm is [1999] (a) triploid (b) haploid (c) diploid (d) polyploid 52. Flowers showing ornithophily show few characteristic like [1999] (a) blue flower with nectaries at base of corolla (b) red sweet scented flower with nectaries (c) bright red flower into thick inflorescence (d) white flowers with fragrance 53. How many pollen grains will be formed after meiotic division in ten microspore mother cells?[1996] (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 80 54. In an angiosperm, how many microspore mother cells are required to produce 100 pollen grains [1995] (a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100 55. Chief pollinators of agricultural crops are [1994] (a) butterflies (b) bees (c) moths (d) beetles 56. Transfer of pollen to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is [1994] (a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy (c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy 57. Fertilization involving carrying of male gametes by pollen tube is [1994] (a) Porogamy (b) Siphonogamy (c) Chalazogamy (d) Syngonogamy 58. One of the most resistant biological material is [1994] (a) lignin (b) hemicellulose (c) lignocellulose (d) sporopollenin 59. Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac, chalaza and micropyle lying on one straight line. It is [1993] (a) Orthotropous (b) Anatropous (c) Campylotropous (d) Amphitropous 60. Number of meiotic divisions required to produce 200/400 seeds of Pea would be[1993] (a) 200/400 (b) 400/800 (c) 300/600 (d) 250/500 61. Meiosis is best observed in dividing [1992] (a) cells of apical meristem(b) cells of lateral meristem (c) microspores and anther wall(d) microsporocytes 62. Pollination occurs in [1991] (a) Bryophytes and angiosperms (b) Pteridophytes and angiosperms (c) Angiosperms and gymnosperms (d) Angiosperms and fungi 63. Embryo sac occurs in [1991] (a) Embryo (b) Axis part of embryo (c) Ovule (d) Endosperm 64. Which of the following pair has haploid structures? [1991] (a) Nucellus and antipodal cells (b) Antipodal cells and egg cell (c) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell (d) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus 65. Point out the odd one? [1991] (a) Nucellus (b) Embryo sac (c) Micropyle (d) Pollen grain 66. Syngamy means [1991] (a) fusion of gametes (b) fusion of cytoplasms (c) fusion of two similar spores (d) fusion of two dissimilar spores 67. Which ones produces androgenic haploids in anther cultures? [1990] (a) Anther wall (b) Tapetal layer of anther wall (c) Connective tissue (d) Young pollen grains 68. Male gametophyte of angiosperms/monocots is [1990] (a) Microsporangium (b) Nucellus (c) Microspore (d) Stamen 69. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is represented by [1990] (a) Ovule (b) Megaspore mother cell (c) Embryo sac (d) Nucellus 70. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is [1990] (a) Chalazogamy (b) Mesogamy (c) Porogamy (d) Pseudogamy 71. Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a normal pollen tube was still formed because[2003] (a) vegetative cell is not damaged (b) contents of killed generative cell stimulate pollen growth (c) laser beam stimulates growth of pollen tube (d) the region of emergence of pollen tube is not harmed 72. Which is correct? [1999] (a) Gametes are invariably haploid (b) Spores are invariably haploid (c) Gametes are generally haploid (d) Both spores and gametes are invariably haploid 73. Male gametophyte of angiosperms is shedas [1998] (a) four celled pollen grain (b) three celled pollen grain (c) microspore mother cell (d) anther 74. Total number of meiotic division required for forming 100 zygotes/100 grains of wheat is [2003] (a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 125 (d) 50 75. A diploid female plant and a tetraploid male plant are crossed. The ploidy of endosperm shall be [2004] (a) tetraploid (b) triploid (c) diploid (d) pentaploid 76. Double fertilisation leading to initiation of endosperm in Angiosperms require [2000] (a) fusion of one polar nucleus and the second male gamete only (b) fusion of two polar nuclei and the second male gamete (c) fusion of four or more polar nuclei and the second male gamete only (d) all the above kinds of fusion in different angiosperms 77. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of endosperm will be [1997] (a) haploid (b) triploid (c) tetraploid (d) pentaploid 78. In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for the formation of [1996] (a) embryo (b) endosperm (c) seed coat (d) fruit wall 79. Double fertilization is characteristic of [1993] (a) Angiosperms (b) Pteridophytes (c) Gymnosperms (d) Bryophytes 80. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by [1993] (a) Hofmeister(b) Nawaschin and Guignard (c) Leeuwenhoek(d) Strasburger 81. Double fertilization is fusion of [1991] (a) two eggs (b) two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen nuclei (c) one male gamete with egg and other with synergid (d) one male gamete with egg and other with secondary nucleus 82. Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage of [1999] (a) male gamete (b) pollen tube (c) water (d) gases 83. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into ? [2017] (a) Endosperm (b) Embryo sac (c) Embryo (d) Ovule 84. Non-albuminous seed is produced in: [2014] (a) Maize (b) Castor (c) Wheat (d) Pea 85. Perisperm differs from endosperm in;[NEET 2013] (a) having no reserve food (b) being a diploid tissue (c) its formatting by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms (d) being a haploid tissue 86. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in :[NEET 2013] (a) Coconut (b) Groundnut (c) Gram (d) Maize 87. The viability of seeds is tested by[NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Safranine (b) 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols (c) 2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (d) DMSO 88. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in [NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Perisperm (b) Endosperm (c) Cotyledons (d) Hypocotyl 89. Which of the following statements is not true about somatic embryogenesis?[NEET Kar. 2013] (a) A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell (b) The pattern of development of a somatic embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic embryo (c) Somatic embryos can develop from microspores (d) Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin such as 2, 4-D 90. A drupe develops in [2011] (a) mango (b) wheat (c) pea (d) tomato 91. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from [2010] (a) Synergids (b) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule (c) Antipodal cells (d) Diploid egg 92. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons? [2010] (a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm (c) Aleurone layer (d) Plumule 93. A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is called [2009] (a) Sorosis (b) Syconus (c) Caryopsis (d) Hasperidium 94. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in [2009] (a) walnut and tamarind(b) french bean and coconut (c) cashew nut and litchi (d) groundnut and pomegranate 95. An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle is [2009] (a) coffee (b) lily (c) castor (d) cotton 96. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of [2008] (a) coconut (b) castor (c) pea (d) maize 97. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is [2008] (a) Caryopsis (b) Cypsela (c) Berry (d) Cremocarp 98. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of: [2008] (a) Achenes (b) Samaras (c) Berries (d) Mericarps 99. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in [2008] (a) pomegranate (b) orange (c) guava (d) cucumber 100. Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes, and the mature seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, are characteristic features of [2005] (a) Cycads (b) Conifers (c) Polypetalous angiosperms (d) Gamopetalous angiosperms 101. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for annual crop plants? [2005] (a) It reduces the vigour of the plant. (b) It adversely affects the fertility of the plant. (c) The seeds exhibit long dormancy. (d) The seeds cannot be stored under normal conditions for the next season. 102. Adventive polyembryony in citrus is due to[2001, 05] (a) nucellus (b) integuments (c) zygotic embryo (d) fertilised egg 103. Study of formation, growth and development of new individual from an egg is [1993] (a) Apomixis (b) Embryology (c) Embryogeny (d) Cytology 104. Tegmen develops from [1990] (a) funiculus (b) chalaza (c) inner integument (d) outer integument 105. Parthenogenesis is [2000] (a) development of embryo without fertilization (b) development of fruit without fertilization (c) development of fruit without hormones (d) development of embryo from egg without fertilization 106. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of [2011] (a) Citrus (b) Gossypium (c) Triticum (d) Brassica 107. Which plant will lose its economic value if its fruits are produced by induced parthenocarpy? [1997] (a) brape (b) pomegranate (c) banana (d) orange 108. The polyembryony commonly occurs in [1995] (a) citrus (b) turmeric (c) tomato (d) potato Sexual reproduction flowering plants KEY ANSWERS
1 A 41 C 81 D 121 C 161 A 201 C 241 B 281 C 321 D 361 C 401 A
2 A 42 C 82 C 122 B 162 A 202 D 242 B 282 C 322 A 362 A 402 A
3 D 43 D 83 D 123 C 163 C 203 B 243 D 283 D 323 C 363 A
4 C 44 C 84 A 124 C 164 C 204 C 244 C 284 C 324 C 364 A
5 B 45 C 85 D 125 A 165 D 205 C 245 C 285 D 325 D 365 C
6 A 46 D 86 B 126 C 166 C 206 D 246 C 286 B 326 B 366 D
7 A 47 A 87 D 127 A 167 C 207 B 247 B 287 B 327 D 367 D
8 A 48 A 88 A 128 C 168 A 208 C 248 B 288 D 328 D 368 A
9 A 49 C 89 B 129 C 169 A 209 C 249 A 289 A 329 D 369 A
10 B 50 C 90 B 130 B 170 D 210 A 250 A 290 C 330 C 370 C
11 C 51 A 91 B 131 C 171 C 211 C 251 B 291 C 331 B 371 D
12 D 52 C 92 B 132 A 172 B 212 C 252 A 292 A 332 D 372 D
13 B 53 C 93 B 133 B 173 D 213 B 253 A 293 A 333 B 373 D
14 B 54 C 94 D 134 C 174 D 214 A 254 A 294 D 334 C 374 D
15 D 55 B 95 C 135 A 175 D 215 B 255 C 295 B 335 A 375 C
16 D 56 C 96 D 136 D 176 D 216 D 256 C 296 D 336 B 376 D
17 C 57 A 97 A 137 B 177 D 217 B 257 A 297 D 337 C 377 C
18 A 58 B 98 D 138 B 178 C 218 C 258 C 298 D 338 B 378 C
19 D 59 C 99 C 139 C 179 D 219 D 259 A 299 B 339 C 379 A
20 A 60 A 100 B 140 C 180 B 220 C 260 C 300 A 340 C 380 D
21 C 61 B 101 B 141 D 181 B 221 D 261 D 301 B 341 C 381 D
22 D 62 C 102 B 142 A 182 B 222 B 262 A 302 C 342 B 382 D
23 C 63 C 103 B 143 B 183 C 223 C 263 A 303 D 343 B 383 A
24 D 64 C 104 A 144 A 184 C 224 A 264 A 304 C 344 B 384 B
25 A 65 A 105 A 145 B 185 A 225 C 265 A 305 B 345 B 385 A
26 C 66 A 106 C 146 D 186 C 226 A 266 B 306 A 346 C 386 B
27 D 67 D 107 A 147 D 187 C 227 A 267 A 307 C 347 D 387 C
28 A 68 B 108 B 148 C 188 B 228 B 268 C 308 D 348 A 388 C
29 C 69 B 109 B 149 D 189 A 229 C 269 C 309 A 349 D 389 C
30 B 70 D 110 D 150 A 190 B 230 B 270 D 310 A 350 D 390 C
31 C 71 D 111 C 151 C 191 D 231 C 271 B 311 D 351 C 391 D
32 D 72 B 112 A 152 B 192 B 232 A 272 A 312 C 352 C 392 A
33 B 73 A 113 A 153 C 193 V 233 A 273 B 313 B 353 C 393 D
34 B 74 A 114 B 154 C 194 D 234 D 274 C 314 B 354 D 394 A
35 B 75 C 115 A 155 B 195 D 235 A 275 C 315 C 355 C 395 D
36 D 76 D 116 C 156 C 196 D 236 C 276 A 316 C 356 D 396 A
37 C 77 D 117 A 157 C 197 D 237 C 277 A 317 B 357 C 397 D
38 C 78 C 118 C 158 D 198 A 238 A 278 C 318 B 358 A 398 B
39 C 79 A 119 B 159 B 199 A 239 A 279 B 319 D 359 B 399 C
40 A 80 D 120 C 160 D 200 A 240 D 280 B 320 D 360 D 400 A
NEET PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
1 A 41 A 81 D
2 B 42 A 82 C
3 A 43 B 83 B
4 A 44 A 84 D
5 A 45 C 85 B
6 D 46 D 86 A
7 C 47 B 87 C
8 D 48 D 88 B
9 A 49 D 89 C
10 C 50 D 90 A
11 A 51 B 91 B
12 C 52 A 92 A
13 D 53 C 93 B
14 C 54 A 94 D
15 B 55 B 95 C
16 B 56 D 96 C
17 C 57 B 97 B
18 B 58 D 98 A
19 A 59 A 99 A
20 D 60 D 100 A
21 D 61 D 101 D
22 A 62 C 102 A
23 B 63 C 103 B
24 A 64 B 104 C
25 C 65 D 105 D
26 A 66 A 106 A
27 D 67 D 107 B
28 C 68 C 108 A
29 D 69 C 109
30 C 70 C 110
31 B 71 A 111
32 B 72 A 112
33 A 73 B 113
34 A 74 C 114
35 D 75 A 115
36 A 76 B 116
37 D 77 D 117
38 A 78 B 118
39 A 79 A 119
40 C 80 B 120